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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Sample Questions (Q38-Q43):

NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is the best way to distribute custom images to 800 devices that include four device vendor classes with two types of user groups?

A. Use a network-based remote installation tool
B. Use xcopy to clone the hard drives from one to another
C. Use a local image deployment tool for each device
D. Use robocopy to move the files to each device

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In enterprise environments, network-based deployment solutions (such as Windows Deployment Services or SCCM) allow administrators to push images across the network to hundreds of devices efficiently. These tools support hardware-specific drivers (for different vendor classes) and can accommodate user-group configurations using task sequences or answer files.
A: and B (xcopy and robocopy) are file-level tools and not designed for full OS image deployment.
C: Using local tools per device is inefficient for large-scale rollouts (800 devices).
D: Network-based deployment is the industry standard for this scale.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system installation methods.
Study Guide Section: Deployment methods (including PXE boot, image deployment)

NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is a Linux command that is used for administrative purposes?

A. su
B. runas
C. cmcl
D. net user

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The su (substitute user) command is used in Linux to switch to another user account, most commonly to escalate privileges by switching to the root (administrator) account. It allows administrative tasks to be performed in a terminal session.
A: runas is a Windows command for executing a program under another user's context.
B: cmcl is not a valid Linux or administrative command.
C: net user is a Windows command for managing local user accounts.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.9: Identify common features and tools of the Linux client/desktop OS.
Study Guide Section: Linux command-line tools - su, sudo

NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following describes a vulnerability that has been exploited before a patch or remediation is available?

A. Zero-day
B. DoS
C. Spoofing
D. Brute-force

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A Zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw in software or hardware that is unknown to the vendor or has not yet been patched. If this vulnerability is exploited before the vendor has issued a fix or patch, it becomes a Zero-day exploit. These attacks are highly dangerous because they take advantage of the absence of defenses due to the lack of awareness or mitigation options.
A: Spoofing is a form of impersonation, not necessarily tied to unpatched vulnerabilities.
B: Brute-force attacks rely on repeatedly guessing credentials and are not related to software flaws.
C: DoS (Denial of Service) attacks are meant to overwhelm systems and don't necessarily exploit unknown vulnerabilities.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.3: Compare and contrast common social engineering, threats, and vulnerabilities.
Study Guide Section: Threat types - Zero-day attacks, definitions, and implications

NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following describes an attack in which an attacker sets up a rogue AP that tricks users into connecting to the rogue AP instead of the legitimate network?

A. Stalkerware
B. Tailgating
C. Shoulder surfing
D. Evil twin

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware.
The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.
A: Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.
C: Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.
D: Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.3: Compare and contrast social engineering and wireless attacks.
Study Guide Section: Wireless threats - rogue APs and evil twin scenarios

NEW QUESTION # 42
The screen of a previously working computer repeatedly displays an OS Not Found error message when the computer is started. Only a USB drive, a keyboard, and a mouse are plugged into the computer. Which of the following should a technician do first?

A. Switch from UEFI to BIOS
B. Run data recovery tools on the disk
C. Check boot options
D. Partition the disk using the GPT format

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
An "OS Not Found" error typically indicates that the computer is attempting to boot from a drive that doesn't contain a valid operating system or bootable partition. The presence of a USB drive might be confusing the boot order. Therefore, the first step a technician should take is to verify and adjust the boot sequence in the system's firmware (BIOS or UEFI). It's possible that the USB drive is being prioritized over the internal hard drive, which may cause the system to miss the OS entirely.
A: Running data recovery tools is premature before confirming boot order.
B: Repartitioning the disk would destroy existing data-this should not be done until confirmed the OS is actually missing.
D: Switching between UEFI and BIOS (legacy mode) might help in rare cases, but it is not the first step in standard OS boot issue troubleshooting.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.7: Troubleshoot common operating system problems.
Study Guide Section: Boot process and boot order configuration.

NEW QUESTION # 43
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